Ready for another round of NCLEX-RN practice questions? This free NCLEX-RN Practice Test 4 is designed to help nursing students and nurses review essential nursing concepts and prepare for the NCLEX-RN exam. Work through NCLEX-style questions, test your understanding, and review the detailed explanations to strengthen your nursing knowledge and improve your exam readiness.
Whether you are studying for nursing school exams or preparing for the NCLEX-RN, regular practice can help you become more comfortable with different question formats and improve your ability to apply nursing concepts to clinical situations.
Looking for more NCLEX-RN practice questions? Keep practicing to strengthen your nursing knowledge and improve your test-taking skills. Visit our Free NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test Bank to find more NCLEX-RN practice tests, nursing practice questions, test questions, and exam review resources. Regular practice can help you review key nursing concepts and feel more prepared for the NCLEX-RN exam.
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Quiz Guidelines
NCLEX-RN Practice Exam 4: Test your nursing knowledge with these NCLEX-RN test questions covering important concepts commonly assessed on the NCLEX-RN. This free practice exam includes NCLEX-RN practice questions designed to help nursing students review key concepts, strengthen test-taking skills, and prepare for the NCLEX-RN.
- Practice and Prepare: Use this NCLEX-RN practice exam to review essential nursing concepts, reinforce your knowledge, and identify areas that need additional study.
- Challenge Yourself: Test your knowledge under timed conditions. You have 2 minutes per question. Click “Start Quiz” to begin.
- Complete the Quiz: Answer all questions to receive your score and review the answer rationales.
- Review Rationales: After completing the quiz, click “View Questions” to review the correct answers and understand why each option is correct or incorrect.
- Free Nursing Practice: Practice with these NCLEX-RN test questions and nursing practice questions for free. No registration or credit card is required.
- Focus on Weak Areas: Review the questions you missed and use the rationales to strengthen your understanding of important nursing concepts and improve your exam preparation.
- Keep Practicing: Take additional NCLEX-RN practice questions and nursing practice quizzes to reinforce your knowledge and build confidence for the NCLEX-RN.
- Share Your Feedback: Share your quiz score, questions, or feedback in the comments to help other nursing students.
Good luck with your NCLEX-RN Practice Exam 4 and your exam preparation!
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
-
Great Job!
You’ve completed the quiz. Take a moment to review your score and the answer rationales. Use the questions you missed as an opportunity to strengthen your knowledge and improve your performance.
Keep practicing and come back for another quiz when you’re ready. Good luck with your exam preparation!
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
The nurse is caring for a client with a recent laparoscopic hemi colectomy. Which finding should be reported to the physician?
Correct
Increasing abdominal girth is concerning for bowel overdistention and may indicate the development of a postoperative ileus. After a laparoscopic hemicolectomy, sluggish bowel sounds, localized pain and tenderness near the umbilicus, and passage of a small amount of liquid stool can occur during the expected postoperative recovery. Progressive abdominal distention, however, is a finding that requires prompt evaluation because impaired intestinal motility can cause accumulation of gas and intestinal contents.
Incorrect
Increasing abdominal girth is concerning for bowel overdistention and may indicate the development of a postoperative ileus. After a laparoscopic hemicolectomy, sluggish bowel sounds, localized pain and tenderness near the umbilicus, and passage of a small amount of liquid stool can occur during the expected postoperative recovery. Progressive abdominal distention, however, is a finding that requires prompt evaluation because impaired intestinal motility can cause accumulation of gas and intestinal contents.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority at this time?
Correct
A newly diagnosed client with diabetes has a priority need for education about the disease, treatment, monitoring, nutrition, medications, and prevention of complications. Therefore, deficient knowledge is the priority nursing diagnosis. Fluid volume deficit, anxiety, and activity intolerance may occur in some clients, but the question provides no findings establishing them as the immediate priority. Education is essential to help the client safely manage diabetes and participate in self-care.
Incorrect
A newly diagnosed client with diabetes has a priority need for education about the disease, treatment, monitoring, nutrition, medications, and prevention of complications. Therefore, deficient knowledge is the priority nursing diagnosis. Fluid volume deficit, anxiety, and activity intolerance may occur in some clients, but the question provides no findings establishing them as the immediate priority. Education is essential to help the client safely manage diabetes and participate in self-care.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which action by the home health nurse indicates a knowledge of the needs of an elderly client?
Correct
Reinforcing teaching about fall prevention is an important nursing intervention for an elderly client because age-related changes in balance, vision, muscle strength, reaction time, and environmental awareness increase the risk of falls. Hospice teaching is not indicated without evidence of a terminal condition or a need for end-of-life services. A higher-pitched voice can be harder for an older adult with age-related hearing changes to understand, so communication should be clear and appropriately paced rather than simply higher pitched. Fluids should not be generally restricted; although limiting fluids close to bedtime may reduce nocturia, adequate hydration remains important.
Incorrect
Reinforcing teaching about fall prevention is an important nursing intervention for an elderly client because age-related changes in balance, vision, muscle strength, reaction time, and environmental awareness increase the risk of falls. Hospice teaching is not indicated without evidence of a terminal condition or a need for end-of-life services. A higher-pitched voice can be harder for an older adult with age-related hearing changes to understand, so communication should be clear and appropriately paced rather than simply higher pitched. Fluids should not be generally restricted; although limiting fluids close to bedtime may reduce nocturia, adequate hydration remains important.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
The nurse asks a patient about current medications. Which one of the patient’s medications is most likely to cause abdominal pain?
Correct
Erythromycin is the medication most likely to cause abdominal pain because gastrointestinal adverse effects such as abdominal cramping, nausea, and diarrhea are common with this antibiotic. Norco may cause constipation, nausea, and other opioid-related effects; cetirizine is generally associated with drowsiness or dry mouth; and spironolactone can cause gastrointestinal effects but is not the medication identified in this question as the most likely cause of abdominal pain.
Incorrect
Erythromycin is the medication most likely to cause abdominal pain because gastrointestinal adverse effects such as abdominal cramping, nausea, and diarrhea are common with this antibiotic. Norco may cause constipation, nausea, and other opioid-related effects; cetirizine is generally associated with drowsiness or dry mouth; and spironolactone can cause gastrointestinal effects but is not the medication identified in this question as the most likely cause of abdominal pain.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
The nurse is assessing the abdomen. The nurse knows the best sequence to perform the assessment is:
Correct
The abdomen should be assessed in the sequence of inspection, auscultation, and palpation. Inspection is performed first to observe contour, distention, scars, movement, and other visible findings. Auscultation must occur before palpation because touching or manipulating the abdomen can alter bowel activity and make assessment of bowel sounds less reliable. Palpation is therefore performed last.
Incorrect
The abdomen should be assessed in the sequence of inspection, auscultation, and palpation. Inspection is performed first to observe contour, distention, scars, movement, and other visible findings. Auscultation must occur before palpation because touching or manipulating the abdomen can alter bowel activity and make assessment of bowel sounds less reliable. Palpation is therefore performed last.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for two months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ donation with the wife?
Correct
The source rationale identifies answer A as correct: the nurse should acknowledge the wife’s wishes while contacting the appropriate organ-retrieval staff. The situation should be approached sensitively and according to applicable organ-donation procedures rather than arguing with the family or making an abrupt declaration about the disposition of the organs. Answer B is incorrect because the nurse should not simply tell the wife that the hospital has an unrestricted right to take the organs. Answer C is incorrect because telling the wife she is required to donate her husband’s organs is coercive and inappropriate. Answer D is incorrect because avoiding the topic entirely until after death does not appropriately address the family’s concerns or facilitate timely communication with the organ-retrieval team.
Incorrect
The source rationale identifies answer A as correct: the nurse should acknowledge the wife’s wishes while contacting the appropriate organ-retrieval staff. The situation should be approached sensitively and according to applicable organ-donation procedures rather than arguing with the family or making an abrupt declaration about the disposition of the organs. Answer B is incorrect because the nurse should not simply tell the wife that the hospital has an unrestricted right to take the organs. Answer C is incorrect because telling the wife she is required to donate her husband’s organs is coercive and inappropriate. Answer D is incorrect because avoiding the topic entirely until after death does not appropriately address the family’s concerns or facilitate timely communication with the organ-retrieval team.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
The client with cancer refuses to care for herself. Which action by the nurse would be best?
Correct
The best nursing action is to explore the reason for the client’s lack of motivation. Refusal or inability to participate in self-care may have an underlying physical or psychological cause, such as fatigue, anemia, depression, uncontrolled symptoms, fear, or inadequate understanding. Identifying the cause allows the nurse to individualize interventions. Alternating nurses may reduce continuity and prevent a therapeutic relationship from developing. Simply explaining the need for self-care does not address why the client is refusing, and immediately contacting the physician without first assessing the situation is premature.
Incorrect
The best nursing action is to explore the reason for the client’s lack of motivation. Refusal or inability to participate in self-care may have an underlying physical or psychological cause, such as fatigue, anemia, depression, uncontrolled symptoms, fear, or inadequate understanding. Identifying the cause allows the nurse to individualize interventions. Alternating nurses may reduce continuity and prevent a therapeutic relationship from developing. Simply explaining the need for self-care does not address why the client is refusing, and immediately contacting the physician without first assessing the situation is premature.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
The charge nurse is making assignments for the day. After accept ing the assignment to care for a client with leukemia, the nurse tells the charge nurse that her child has chickenpox. Which initial action should the charge nurse take?
Correct
The source rationale identifies asking whether the nurse has previously had chickenpox as the initial action. A nurse who has had chickenpox is generally considered immune and therefore is not expected to transmit primary varicella to a susceptible client merely because the nurse’s child has chickenpox. The charge nurse should first determine the nurse’s immunity rather than automatically reassigning the nurse. Asking whether the child’s lesions have crusted does not establish the nurse’s own immune status, and the presence of crusted lesions does not by itself eliminate every relevant exposure concern.
Incorrect
The source rationale identifies asking whether the nurse has previously had chickenpox as the initial action. A nurse who has had chickenpox is generally considered immune and therefore is not expected to transmit primary varicella to a susceptible client merely because the nurse’s child has chickenpox. The charge nurse should first determine the nurse’s immunity rather than automatically reassigning the nurse. Asking whether the child’s lesions have crusted does not establish the nurse’s own immune status, and the presence of crusted lesions does not by itself eliminate every relevant exposure concern.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
The nurse is caring for the client with a mastectomy. Which action would be contraindicated?
Correct
Taking the blood pressure on the side of a mastectomy is the contraindicated action identified by the source. Blood-pressure measurements, venipunctures, and fingersticks are traditionally avoided on the affected side because of concern for lymphatic impairment and lymphedema, particularly when lymph nodes have been removed or radiation has affected lymphatic drainage. Elevating the affected arm can help promote drainage, positioning on the unaffected side can improve comfort and protect the operative area, and using the unaffected side for a fingerstick is appropriate.
Incorrect
Taking the blood pressure on the side of a mastectomy is the contraindicated action identified by the source. Blood-pressure measurements, venipunctures, and fingersticks are traditionally avoided on the affected side because of concern for lymphatic impairment and lymphedema, particularly when lymph nodes have been removed or radiation has affected lymphatic drainage. Elevating the affected arm can help promote drainage, positioning on the unaffected side can improve comfort and protect the operative area, and using the unaffected side for a fingerstick is appropriate.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The client has an order for Garamycin (gentamicin) to be administered. Which lab test should be done before beginning the medication?
Correct
Serum creatinine should be assessed before administering gentamicin because gentamicin is an aminoglycoside with important nephrotoxic potential. Renal function influences drug clearance and helps the nurse identify clients at increased risk for accumulation and toxicity. Hematocrit and white blood cell count do not provide the key renal-function assessment needed for this medication. BUN can provide information about renal function, but serum creatinine is the more useful routine indicator for estimating kidney function and guiding aminoglycoside safety.
Incorrect
Serum creatinine should be assessed before administering gentamicin because gentamicin is an aminoglycoside with important nephrotoxic potential. Renal function influences drug clearance and helps the nurse identify clients at increased risk for accumulation and toxicity. Hematocrit and white blood cell count do not provide the key renal-function assessment needed for this medication. BUN can provide information about renal function, but serum creatinine is the more useful routine indicator for estimating kidney function and guiding aminoglycoside safety.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV?
Correct
The source rationale identifies the Western blot as the best indicator for HIV in this question. ELISA is a screening test, whereas a supplemental confirmatory test was traditionally used to establish HIV infection after a reactive screening result. WBC and CBC values are nonspecific and cannot establish an HIV diagnosis. Modern HIV testing algorithms use antigen/antibody and nucleic-acid testing rather than the older Western-blot algorithm, but the answer reflects the terminology and expected answer of the supplied source.
Incorrect
The source rationale identifies the Western blot as the best indicator for HIV in this question. ELISA is a screening test, whereas a supplemental confirmatory test was traditionally used to establish HIV infection after a reactive screening result. WBC and CBC values are nonspecific and cannot establish an HIV diagnosis. Modern HIV testing algorithms use antigen/antibody and nucleic-acid testing rather than the older Western-blot algorithm, but the answer reflects the terminology and expected answer of the supplied source.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
The client presents to the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash, headache, and arthralgia. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
Correct
A bull’s-eye rash together with headache and arthralgia is characteristic of Lyme disease, which is transmitted by infected ticks. Therefore, asking whether the client has found any ticks on the body is the most relevant history question among the options because it explores a possible exposure route. Diarrhea, recent international travel, and itching are not as specifically connected with the classic Lyme-disease presentation described in the question.
Incorrect
A bull’s-eye rash together with headache and arthralgia is characteristic of Lyme disease, which is transmitted by infected ticks. Therefore, asking whether the client has found any ticks on the body is the most relevant history question among the options because it explores a possible exposure route. Diarrhea, recent international travel, and itching are not as specifically connected with the classic Lyme-disease presentation described in the question.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
Correct
The elderly client who had a thyroidectomy four days ago is the least-skilled assignment among the choices, assuming the client is stable and has no acute postoperative complication. A nursing assistant can provide appropriate basic care to a stable postoperative client within the assistant’s scope. The clients with cervical-spine fractures, meningitis with fever, and a recent thoracotomy are more clinically unstable and require nursing assessment and monitoring by licensed nursing staff.
Incorrect
The elderly client who had a thyroidectomy four days ago is the least-skilled assignment among the choices, assuming the client is stable and has no acute postoperative complication. A nursing assistant can provide appropriate basic care to a stable postoperative client within the assistant’s scope. The clients with cervical-spine fractures, meningitis with fever, and a recent thoracotomy are more clinically unstable and require nursing assessment and monitoring by licensed nursing staff.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
The client presents to the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate?
Correct
For hyphema, blood is present in the anterior chamber of the eye, usually after ocular trauma. The appropriate intervention identified by the source is to elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye. Elevation helps reduce pressure and bleeding-related complications, while a cold application can help limit swelling. The other interventions do not address the ocular hemorrhage and are unrelated to the immediate management of hyphema.
Incorrect
For hyphema, blood is present in the anterior chamber of the eye, usually after ocular trauma. The appropriate intervention identified by the source is to elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye. Elevation helps reduce pressure and bleeding-related complications, while a cold application can help limit swelling. The other interventions do not address the ocular hemorrhage and are unrelated to the immediate management of hyphema.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
The client has an order for Feosol(ferrous sulfate). To promote absorption, the nurse should administer the medication with:
Correct
Ferrous sulfate is absorbed more effectively when administered with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption, making orange juice the best choice. Milk and calcium-containing foods can reduce iron absorption, and taking iron with meals may decrease absorption even though food can sometimes be used to reduce gastrointestinal upset. The medication should not be administered simply as an undiluted preparation when the goal is to optimize absorption.
Incorrect
Ferrous sulfate is absorbed more effectively when administered with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption, making orange juice the best choice. Milk and calcium-containing foods can reduce iron absorption, and taking iron with meals may decrease absorption even though food can sometimes be used to reduce gastrointestinal upset. The medication should not be administered simply as an undiluted preparation when the goal is to optimize absorption.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care?
Correct
A client with an ileostomy should be taught to use an appropriate skin barrier such as Stomahesive to protect the peristomal skin from the irritating liquid intestinal output. Ileostomy output is typically liquid or semiliquid and contains digestive enzymes, making meticulous skin protection important. Routine irrigation is not required for an ileostomy, and stool softeners are generally unnecessary because the output is already liquid. Karaya powder is not the recommended choice in the supplied rationale for obtaining an effective pouch seal.
Incorrect
A client with an ileostomy should be taught to use an appropriate skin barrier such as Stomahesive to protect the peristomal skin from the irritating liquid intestinal output. Ileostomy output is typically liquid or semiliquid and contains digestive enzymes, making meticulous skin protection important. Routine irrigation is not required for an ileostomy, and stool softeners are generally unnecessary because the output is already liquid. Karaya powder is not the recommended choice in the supplied rationale for obtaining an effective pouch seal.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Why is Phytonadione(vitamin K) administered to a newborn short ly after birth?
Correct
Phytonadione, or vitamin K, is administered to newborns to facilitate normal blood clotting. Newborns have relatively low vitamin K stores and limited intestinal bacterial production immediately after birth, which can increase the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding. Vitamin K supports synthesis of several clotting factors. It is not administered primarily to treat infection, replace electrolytes, or simply stop an active hemorrhage.
Incorrect
Phytonadione, or vitamin K, is administered to newborns to facilitate normal blood clotting. Newborns have relatively low vitamin K stores and limited intestinal bacterial production immediately after birth, which can increase the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding. Vitamin K supports synthesis of several clotting factors. It is not administered primarily to treat infection, replace electrolytes, or simply stop an active hemorrhage.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A client is admitted to the postpartal unit with a large amount of lochia rubra, uterine enlargement, and excessive clots. Which medication will likely be ordered for the client?
Correct
Hemabate (carboprost tromethamine) is a uterotonic prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage related to uterine atony when bleeding is not adequately controlled by other measures. The presentation of heavy lochia rubra, uterine enlargement, and excessive clots is consistent with significant postpartum bleeding. Fentanyl and butorphanol are analgesics, while dinoprostone is a prostaglandin used primarily for cervical ripening rather than the treatment identified in this question.
Incorrect
Hemabate (carboprost tromethamine) is a uterotonic prostaglandin used to treat postpartum hemorrhage related to uterine atony when bleeding is not adequately controlled by other measures. The presentation of heavy lochia rubra, uterine enlargement, and excessive clots is consistent with significant postpartum bleeding. Fentanyl and butorphanol are analgesics, while dinoprostone is a prostaglandin used primarily for cervical ripening rather than the treatment identified in this question.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Before administering intravenous chemotherapy to the patient being treated, the nurse should:
Correct
An antiemetic should be administered before chemotherapy when indicated because many chemotherapeutic agents can trigger significant nausea and vomiting. Preventive antiemetic therapy can reduce symptoms before they become severe and can help the client tolerate treatment. A routine IV-fluid bolus, pain medication, or allowing the client to eat is not the priority intervention described by the source and should instead be based on the individual treatment plan and clinical condition.
Incorrect
An antiemetic should be administered before chemotherapy when indicated because many chemotherapeutic agents can trigger significant nausea and vomiting. Preventive antiemetic therapy can reduce symptoms before they become severe and can help the client tolerate treatment. A routine IV-fluid bolus, pain medication, or allowing the client to eat is not the priority intervention described by the source and should instead be based on the individual treatment plan and clinical condition.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to con tinue the infusion of Pitocin (oxytocin). The nurse is aware that Pitocin is working if the fundus is:
Correct
Pitocin (oxytocin) is effective when it produces adequate uterine contraction, resulting in a firm, well-contracted fundus in the midline and helping reduce postpartum bleeding. A uterus that is boggy indicates poor uterine tone and increases hemorrhage risk. A fundus deviated to the left commonly suggests a distended bladder rather than effective uterine contraction. Oxytocin promotes uterine contraction; it does not directly correct uterine deviation caused by bladder distention.
Incorrect
Pitocin (oxytocin) is effective when it produces adequate uterine contraction, resulting in a firm, well-contracted fundus in the midline and helping reduce postpartum bleeding. A uterus that is boggy indicates poor uterine tone and increases hemorrhage risk. A fundus deviated to the left commonly suggests a distended bladder rather than effective uterine contraction. Oxytocin promotes uterine contraction; it does not directly correct uterine deviation caused by bladder distention.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A patient is diagnosed with secondary syphilis. The nurse can expect the patient to have:
Correct
Secondary syphilis can produce a diffuse rash that characteristically includes the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, often accompanied by systemic flu-like symptoms. This stage occurs after the primary lesion and reflects disseminated infection. Chancres are associated with primary syphilis, while findings such as neurologic deterioration and gummatous lesions are associated with later tertiary disease. Therefore, the ‘copper penny’ rash described in the source is the expected finding for secondary syphilis.
Incorrect
Secondary syphilis can produce a diffuse rash that characteristically includes the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, often accompanied by systemic flu-like symptoms. This stage occurs after the primary lesion and reflects disseminated infection. Chancres are associated with primary syphilis, while findings such as neurologic deterioration and gummatous lesions are associated with later tertiary disease. Therefore, the ‘copper penny’ rash described in the source is the expected finding for secondary syphilis.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A four-year-old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Creon (pancrelipase). The medication is given to:
Correct
Creon (pancrelipase) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication used to assist digestion in clients who have inadequate pancreatic enzyme production, including many clients with cystic fibrosis. The enzymes help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates so nutrients can be absorbed more effectively. Creon does not thin respiratory secretions, promote clotting, or shrink nasal polyps. Its therapeutic purpose is replacement of digestive enzymes.
Incorrect
Creon (pancrelipase) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication used to assist digestion in clients who have inadequate pancreatic enzyme production, including many clients with cystic fibrosis. The enzymes help digest fats, proteins, and carbohydrates so nutrients can be absorbed more effectively. Creon does not thin respiratory secretions, promote clotting, or shrink nasal polyps. Its therapeutic purpose is replacement of digestive enzymes.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
The physician has prescribed Zyvox (linezolid) for a patient with VRE. The concurrent use of which medication may result in serotonin syndrome?
Correct
Zoloft (sertraline) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Linezolid (Zyvox) has monoamine oxidase-inhibiting activity, so concurrent use with serotonergic antidepressants can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. The syndrome can include agitation, confusion, sweating, tremor, hyperreflexia, fever, and other neuromuscular or autonomic abnormalities. Nexium, Lipitor, and Zyrtec are not the medications identified by the source as creating this serotonergic interaction.
Incorrect
Zoloft (sertraline) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Linezolid (Zyvox) has monoamine oxidase-inhibiting activity, so concurrent use with serotonergic antidepressants can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. The syndrome can include agitation, confusion, sweating, tremor, hyperreflexia, fever, and other neuromuscular or autonomic abnormalities. Nexium, Lipitor, and Zyrtec are not the medications identified by the source as creating this serotonergic interaction.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A new diabetic is learning to administer his insulin. He receives 10 units of NPH insulin and 12 units of regular insulin each morn ing. Which of the following statements reflects understanding of the nurse’s teaching?
Correct
When mixing regular insulin with NPH insulin, regular insulin should be drawn into the syringe before NPH insulin. This follows the ‘clear before cloudy’ principle and helps prevent contamination of the regular-insulin vial with NPH insulin. The two insulins can be mixed when prescribed and compatible, so two separate injections are not automatically required. It does matter which insulin is drawn up first, making the statements that order does not matter or that NPH should be drawn first incorrect.
Incorrect
When mixing regular insulin with NPH insulin, regular insulin should be drawn into the syringe before NPH insulin. This follows the ‘clear before cloudy’ principle and helps prevent contamination of the regular-insulin vial with NPH insulin. The two insulins can be mixed when prescribed and compatible, so two separate injections are not automatically required. It does matter which insulin is drawn up first, making the statements that order does not matter or that NPH should be drawn first incorrect.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A client is scheduled to have a cardiac CTA with contrast. Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
Correct
Before a cardiac CTA with contrast, the source directs the nurse to assess for a history of allergy to shellfish or iodine. This reflects the traditional teaching associated with iodinated contrast assessment in the supplied material. The client’s ability to lie prone is not the relevant screening issue, and a history of reaction to nitrates or the presence of tattoos does not address the contrast-related concern identified by the source. In current practice, the key assessment is specifically a history of prior reaction to iodinated contrast, rather than a shellfish allergy itself.
Incorrect
Before a cardiac CTA with contrast, the source directs the nurse to assess for a history of allergy to shellfish or iodine. This reflects the traditional teaching associated with iodinated contrast assessment in the supplied material. The client’s ability to lie prone is not the relevant screening issue, and a history of reaction to nitrates or the presence of tattoos does not address the contrast-related concern identified by the source. In current practice, the key assessment is specifically a history of prior reaction to iodinated contrast, rather than a shellfish allergy itself.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Which medication does the nurse expect to be ordered for the postpartal patient with bleeding uncontrolled by Pitocin (oxytocin)?
Correct
Methergine (methylergonovine) is a uterotonic medication that produces sustained uterine contraction and is used to manage postpartum bleeding when uterine atony is not controlled adequately with oxytocin. The medication helps the uterus contract and reduces blood loss. Phytonadione is vitamin K, aminocaproic acid has different hemostatic indications, and betamethasone is a corticosteroid used in obstetric contexts such as fetal lung maturation rather than routine treatment of postpartum uterine atony.
Incorrect
Methergine (methylergonovine) is a uterotonic medication that produces sustained uterine contraction and is used to manage postpartum bleeding when uterine atony is not controlled adequately with oxytocin. The medication helps the uterus contract and reduces blood loss. Phytonadione is vitamin K, aminocaproic acid has different hemostatic indications, and betamethasone is a corticosteroid used in obstetric contexts such as fetal lung maturation rather than routine treatment of postpartum uterine atony.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he will have to take an immunosuppressant. Which response is correct?
Correct
A client who receives a transplanted organ generally requires immunosuppressive therapy for life to reduce the risk of immune-mediated rejection. The transplanted organ remains foreign to the recipient’s immune system, so stopping immunosuppression can permit rejection. The duration is therefore not limited to one, five, or ten years under the framework of the source question. Medication regimens and doses may change over time, but ongoing immunosuppression is generally required.
Incorrect
A client who receives a transplanted organ generally requires immunosuppressive therapy for life to reduce the risk of immune-mediated rejection. The transplanted organ remains foreign to the recipient’s immune system, so stopping immunosuppression can permit rejection. The duration is therefore not limited to one, five, or ten years under the framework of the source question. Medication regimens and doses may change over time, but ongoing immunosuppression is generally required.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A client admitted to the emergency room with multiple injuries develops Cullen’s sign. The nurse is aware that the client has sus tained damage to the:
Correct
Cullen’s sign is a bluish or ecchymotic discoloration around the umbilicus associated with intra-abdominal or retroperitoneal bleeding. In a client with multiple injuries, this finding raises concern for damage to abdominal organs and internal hemorrhage. It is not a finding that specifically indicates injury to the frontal lobe, lungs, or spinal cord. The sign therefore supports concern for abdominal injury in the context presented.
Incorrect
Cullen’s sign is a bluish or ecchymotic discoloration around the umbilicus associated with intra-abdominal or retroperitoneal bleeding. In a client with multiple injuries, this finding raises concern for damage to abdominal organs and internal hemorrhage. It is not a finding that specifically indicates injury to the frontal lobe, lungs, or spinal cord. The sign therefore supports concern for abdominal injury in the context presented.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The physician prescribes regular insulin, five units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect:
Correct
Regular insulin is short-acting insulin and, according to the source, begins to exert an effect within approximately 30–60 minutes after subcutaneous administration. This timing is important when coordinating insulin administration with meals and monitoring for hypoglycemia. The other intervals are not the onset range identified in the supplied rationale. The exact pharmacokinetic profile can vary with route and formulation, but the source’s expected answer is 30–60 minutes.
Incorrect
Regular insulin is short-acting insulin and, according to the source, begins to exert an effect within approximately 30–60 minutes after subcutaneous administration. This timing is important when coordinating insulin administration with meals and monitoring for hypoglycemia. The other intervals are not the onset range identified in the supplied rationale. The exact pharmacokinetic profile can vary with route and formulation, but the source’s expected answer is 30–60 minutes.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct
The statement indicating a need for further teaching is ‘I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.’ Glyburide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release and can cause hypoglycemia, particularly when food intake is inadequate. Skipping meals therefore increases the risk of low blood glucose. Carrying a source of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate and wearing medical identification are appropriate safety measures. The source also identifies sun avoidance as appropriate teaching, so the problematic statement is the one about routinely skipping dinner.
Incorrect
The statement indicating a need for further teaching is ‘I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.’ Glyburide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release and can cause hypoglycemia, particularly when food intake is inadequate. Skipping meals therefore increases the risk of low blood glucose. Carrying a source of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate and wearing medical identification are appropriate safety measures. The source also identifies sun avoidance as appropriate teaching, so the problematic statement is the one about routinely skipping dinner.
Hint
Focus on the key clinical finding or nursing principle in this question, then compare each option with the priority indicated by the stem.
NCLEX-RN Practice Test 4
This NCLEX-RN practice test gives you another opportunity to assess your nursing knowledge and practice applying important concepts in an exam-style format. The questions are designed to encourage clinical thinking and help you become more familiar with the type of reasoning required when answering NCLEX-RN questions.
What You Can Gain From This Practice Test
Working through NCLEX-RN practice questions regularly can help you recognize topics that need further review and improve your confidence when answering nursing exam questions. Pay close attention to the rationales, not just whether your answer was right or wrong.
This practice test can help you:
- Review important nursing concepts and principles
- Practice applying knowledge to NCLEX-style scenarios
- Improve clinical judgment and critical-thinking skills
- Find topics that may require additional study
- Build confidence for the NCLEX-RN exam
Make the Most of Your Practice
For the best results, review the rationale for every question after completing the test. Understanding the reasoning behind an answer can help reinforce the underlying nursing concept and make it easier to apply similar knowledge to future questions.
Keep building your skills with additional free NCLEX-RN practice tests and nursing practice questions. Visit our Free NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test Bank to access more practice quizzes, NCLEX-style questions, answer rationales, and resources for your nursing exam preparation.