Prepare for your next step toward the NCLEX-RN with this free NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test 5. This quiz features NCLEX-style nursing questions that can help nursing students and nurses review essential concepts, assess their knowledge, and practice applying what they have learned to exam-style situations.
Take the practice questions at your own pace and carefully review the answers and rationales after each question. Using regular NCLEX-RN practice tests can help you recognize areas that need more review, strengthen your clinical reasoning, and become more confident when answering nursing exam questions.
Looking for more NCLEX-RN practice test questions? Keep practicing to strengthen your nursing knowledge and improve your test-taking skills. Visit our Free NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test Bank to find more NCLEX-RN practice tests, Free Nursing Questions, Nursing practice questions, Free NCLEX Questions, and exam review resources. Regular practice can help you review key nursing concepts and feel more prepared for the NCLEX-RN exam.
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Quiz Guidelines
NCLEX-RN Practice Exam 5: Test your nursing knowledge with these NCLEX-RN test questions covering important concepts commonly assessed on the NCLEX-RN. This free practice exam includes NCLEX-RN practice questions designed to help nursing students review key concepts, strengthen test-taking skills, and prepare for the NCLEX-RN.
- Practice and Prepare: Use this NCLEX-RN practice exam to review essential nursing concepts, reinforce your knowledge, and identify areas that need additional study.
- Challenge Yourself: Test your knowledge under timed conditions. You have 2 minutes per question. Click “Start Quiz” to begin.
- Complete the Quiz: Answer all questions to receive your score and review the answer rationales.
- Review Rationales: After completing the quiz, click “View Questions” to review the correct answers and understand why each option is correct or incorrect.
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- Focus on Weak Areas: Review the questions you missed and use the rationales to strengthen your understanding of important nursing concepts and improve your exam preparation.
- Keep Practicing: Take additional NCLEX-RN practice questions and nursing practice quizzes to reinforce your knowledge and build confidence for the NCLEX-RN.
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Good luck with your NCLEX-RN Practice Exam 5 and your exam preparation!
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A 20-year-old female has a prescription for Sumycin (tetracycline). While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking an oral contraceptive. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan?
Correct
The supplied rationale states that taking antibiotics with oral contraceptives can decrease contraceptive effectiveness. The key nursing teaching point is that the client should recognize the potential for reduced contraceptive protection while receiving antibiotic therapy and follow appropriate additional contraceptive guidance. This is a medication-teaching and pregnancy-prevention issue, so it should be discussed clearly rather than assumed to be harmless.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale states that taking antibiotics with oral contraceptives can decrease contraceptive effectiveness. The key nursing teaching point is that the client should recognize the potential for reduced contraceptive protection while receiving antibiotic therapy and follow appropriate additional contraceptive guidance. This is a medication-teaching and pregnancy-prevention issue, so it should be discussed clearly rather than assumed to be harmless.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A client is taking Deltasone(prednisone) each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
Correct
Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and the supplied rationale explains that morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion pattern of corticosteroids. Giving the medication at this time follows the physiologic rhythm described in the source and is the reason morning dosing is recommended in this question. The rationale is therefore based on matching medication administration to normal endogenous corticosteroid secretion.
Incorrect
Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and the supplied rationale explains that morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion pattern of corticosteroids. Giving the medication at this time follows the physiologic rhythm described in the source and is the reason morning dosing is recommended in this question. The rationale is therefore based on matching medication administration to normal endogenous corticosteroid secretion.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A client is taking Rifadin(rifampin) 600mg PO daily for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should tell the client to:
Correct
Rifampin can produce a characteristic red or orange discoloration of urine and other body fluids. The supplied rationale identifies this color change as an expected medication effect that should be explained to the client. Preparing the client for this finding helps prevent unnecessary alarm and supports adherence to the prescribed tuberculosis treatment.
Incorrect
Rifampin can produce a characteristic red or orange discoloration of urine and other body fluids. The supplied rationale identifies this color change as an expected medication effect that should be explained to the client. Preparing the client for this finding helps prevent unnecessary alarm and supports adherence to the prescribed tuberculosis treatment.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
Correct
Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, meaning inflammation and bleeding of the urinary bladder. The supplied rationale therefore emphasizes generous fluid intake, specifically at least eight large glasses of water daily, to help reduce the urinary complications associated with the medication. Hydration is an important preventive teaching measure for a client receiving Cytoxan.
Incorrect
Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, meaning inflammation and bleeding of the urinary bladder. The supplied rationale therefore emphasizes generous fluid intake, specifically at least eight large glasses of water daily, to help reduce the urinary complications associated with the medication. Hydration is an important preventive teaching measure for a client receiving Cytoxan.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A client with ovarian cancer is receiving fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals in the IV medication?
Correct
Visible crystals in an IV chemotherapy solution indicate that the preparation should not be administered. The supplied rationale directs the nurse to discard the solution and obtain a new bag rather than attempting to correct the problem by warming it, continuing the infusion, or independently discontinuing therapy without replacing the medication. Safe medication administration requires the IV preparation to be suitable and free of abnormal precipitates or crystals.
Incorrect
Visible crystals in an IV chemotherapy solution indicate that the preparation should not be administered. The supplied rationale directs the nurse to discard the solution and obtain a new bag rather than attempting to correct the problem by warming it, continuing the infusion, or independently discontinuing therapy without replacing the medication. Safe medication administration requires the IV preparation to be suitable and free of abnormal precipitates or crystals.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Before administering Theo-Dur (theophylline), the nurse should check the patient’s:
Correct
Theo-Dur (theophylline) is a bronchodilator, and the supplied rationale identifies tachycardia as an important adverse effect. Checking the pulse before administration therefore provides essential information about the client’s cardiovascular response and helps identify excessive heart-rate elevation. Marked tachycardia should be recognized and reported because it may indicate significant medication toxicity or intolerance.
Incorrect
Theo-Dur (theophylline) is a bronchodilator, and the supplied rationale identifies tachycardia as an important adverse effect. Checking the pulse before administration therefore provides essential information about the client’s cardiovascular response and helps identify excessive heart-rate elevation. Marked tachycardia should be recognized and reported because it may indicate significant medication toxicity or intolerance.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy correlates to the diagnosis?
Correct
The supplied rationale connects meningitis during infancy with the diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy is a neurologic disorder that may be associated with early infections affecting the brain or spinal column, as described in the source. Thus, a history of meningitis at six months provides the relevant neurologic history among the choices.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale connects meningitis during infancy with the diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy is a neurologic disorder that may be associated with early infections affecting the brain or spinal column, as described in the source. Thus, a history of meningitis at six months provides the relevant neurologic history among the choices.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which finding is expected in an 18-month-old with normal growth and development?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies push-pull toys as an expected developmental activity at approximately 18 months. This makes pulling a toy behind the child the appropriate milestone for the age in the question. The other developmental abilities listed in the options are described by the source as occurring at later ages, so they would not be the best expected finding for an 18-month-old.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies push-pull toys as an expected developmental activity at approximately 18 months. This makes pulling a toy behind the child the appropriate milestone for the age in the question. The other developmental abilities listed in the options are described by the source as occurring at later ages, so they would not be the best expected finding for an 18-month-old.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A five-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
Correct
Constant swallowing after tonsillectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding. A child may repeatedly swallow blood rather than visibly expectorate it, making frequent or constant swallowing an important warning sign. The supplied rationale therefore identifies this finding as the complication requiring attention, whereas decreased appetite and a low-grade temperature may occur after surgery.
Incorrect
Constant swallowing after tonsillectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding. A child may repeatedly swallow blood rather than visibly expectorate it, making frequent or constant swallowing an important warning sign. The supplied rationale therefore identifies this finding as the complication requiring attention, whereas decreased appetite and a low-grade temperature may occur after surgery.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The child with seizure disorder is being treated with phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements by the patient’s mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?
Correct
Gingival hyperplasia, or enlargement and overgrowth of the gums, is a classic adverse effect associated with phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy. The mother’s observation that the gums look too large for the teeth therefore directly matches the medication effect described in the supplied rationale. Recognizing this finding is important because oral care and follow-up may be needed during long-term phenytoin therapy.
Incorrect
Gingival hyperplasia, or enlargement and overgrowth of the gums, is a classic adverse effect associated with phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy. The mother’s observation that the gums look too large for the teeth therefore directly matches the medication effect described in the supplied rationale. Recognizing this finding is important because oral care and follow-up may be needed during long-term phenytoin therapy.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:
Correct
Tranylcypromine is an MAOI, and the supplied rationale states that eating foods high in tyramine can precipitate severe hypertension. Tyramine-containing foods can interact with MAO inhibition and produce a dangerous increase in blood pressure. The nurse should therefore emphasize avoidance of the high-tyramine foods identified in the source, because the complication can be serious and requires prompt treatment.
Incorrect
Tranylcypromine is an MAOI, and the supplied rationale states that eating foods high in tyramine can precipitate severe hypertension. Tyramine-containing foods can interact with MAO inhibition and produce a dangerous increase in blood pressure. The nurse should therefore emphasize avoidance of the high-tyramine foods identified in the source, because the complication can be serious and requires prompt treatment.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
The client is admitted to the emergency room with shortness of breath, anxiety, and tachycardia. His ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response rate of 130 beats per minute. The doc tor orders quinidine sulfate. While he is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor his ECG for:
Correct
Quinidine can produce myocardial toxicity and conduction abnormalities. The supplied rationale specifically identifies a widened or prolonged QT interval as an ECG finding that should be monitored while the client receives quinidine. ECG surveillance is therefore important because changes in cardiac conduction can signal medication-related toxicity and an increased risk of serious dysrhythmias.
Incorrect
Quinidine can produce myocardial toxicity and conduction abnormalities. The supplied rationale specifically identifies a widened or prolonged QT interval as an ECG finding that should be monitored while the client receives quinidine. ECG surveillance is therefore important because changes in cardiac conduction can signal medication-related toxicity and an increased risk of serious dysrhythmias.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Lidocaine is a medication frequently ordered for the client experiencing:
Correct
Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication used for ventricular dysrhythmias, and the supplied rationale specifically identifies ventricular tachycardia as the condition for which it is frequently ordered. Its action helps suppress abnormal ventricular electrical activity. It is not being selected here for atrial tachycardia, heart block, or ventricular bradycardia.
Incorrect
Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication used for ventricular dysrhythmias, and the supplied rationale specifically identifies ventricular tachycardia as the condition for which it is frequently ordered. Its action helps suppress abnormal ventricular electrical activity. It is not being selected here for atrial tachycardia, heart block, or ventricular bradycardia.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
Correct
Nitroglycerin ointment should be applied using rotating sites to reduce local skin irritation. The supplied rationale also explains that it may be applied to appropriate areas such as the back and upper arms, should not be rubbed into the skin, and should be covered with the prepared dressing rather than ordinary gauze. Rotating sites is therefore the appropriate administration technique among the choices.
Incorrect
Nitroglycerin ointment should be applied using rotating sites to reduce local skin irritation. The supplied rationale also explains that it may be applied to appropriate areas such as the back and upper arms, should not be rubbed into the skin, and should be covered with the prepared dressing rather than ordinary gauze. Rotating sites is therefore the appropriate administration technique among the choices.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg PO bid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
Correct
A persistent cough is a recognized adverse reaction to captopril, an ACE inhibitor. The supplied rationale identifies this cough as the important medication-related finding in the question. A persistent cough during captopril therapy should be recognized as potentially drug-related and communicated to the healthcare provider so the medication regimen can be evaluated.
Incorrect
A persistent cough is a recognized adverse reaction to captopril, an ACE inhibitor. The supplied rationale identifies this cough as the important medication-related finding in the question. A persistent cough during captopril therapy should be recognized as potentially drug-related and communicated to the healthcare provider so the medication regimen can be evaluated.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
The client is admitted with a BP of 210/100. Her doctor orders furosemide (Lasix) 40mg IV stat. How should the nurse adminis ter the prescribed furosemide to this client?
Correct
The supplied rationale states that IV furosemide should be administered over approximately 1–2 minutes to reduce the risk of excessive hypotension. The medication does not need to be administered as an IV piggyback, exclusively with normal saline, or through a filter for the reason given in the source. Correct IV administration rate is therefore an important safety consideration.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale states that IV furosemide should be administered over approximately 1–2 minutes to reduce the risk of excessive hypotension. The medication does not need to be administered as an IV piggyback, exclusively with normal saline, or through a filter for the reason given in the source. Correct IV administration rate is therefore an important safety consideration.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?
Correct
Protamine sulfate is the reversal agent for heparin identified in the supplied rationale. When heparin’s anticoagulant effect needs to be reversed, recognizing protamine sulfate allows the nurse to respond appropriately to excessive anticoagulation or significant bleeding. The other medications listed have different pharmacologic purposes and do not reverse heparin.
Incorrect
Protamine sulfate is the reversal agent for heparin identified in the supplied rationale. When heparin’s anticoagulant effect needs to be reversed, recognizing protamine sulfate allows the nurse to respond appropriately to excessive anticoagulation or significant bleeding. The other medications listed have different pharmacologic purposes and do not reverse heparin.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies linear accelerator therapy as appropriate for assignment to the pregnant nurse because the client receiving this external radiation treatment does not pose the same ongoing radiation exposure risk as clients with internal radioactive implants. By contrast, radium, brachytherapy, and implanted iridium sources require radiation precautions. Assignment decisions should therefore consider the type and source of radiation.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies linear accelerator therapy as appropriate for assignment to the pregnant nurse because the client receiving this external radiation treatment does not pose the same ongoing radiation exposure risk as clients with internal radioactive implants. By contrast, radium, brachytherapy, and implanted iridium sources require radiation precautions. Assignment decisions should therefore consider the type and source of radiation.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The nurse is planning room assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available?
Correct
Cushing’s disease involves excess corticosteroid effects and increased susceptibility to infection. The supplied rationale therefore identifies the client with Cushing’s disease as the priority for the available private room. The other conditions listed do not carry the same infection-susceptibility rationale described in the source.
Incorrect
Cushing’s disease involves excess corticosteroid effects and increased susceptibility to infection. The supplied rationale therefore identifies the client with Cushing’s disease as the priority for the available private room. The other conditions listed do not carry the same infection-susceptibility rationale described in the source.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
The charge nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting an elder ly client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
Correct
The supplied rationale defines the inappropriate striking or touching of a client as assault. Because the nursing assistant is witnessed hitting an elderly client, the conduct corresponds to assault. The source distinguishes this from negligence, which involves failure to provide required care; tort, which is a broader wrongful act; and malpractice, which concerns professional failure or improper action resulting in harm.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale defines the inappropriate striking or touching of a client as assault. Because the nursing assistant is witnessed hitting an elderly client, the conduct corresponds to assault. The source distinguishes this from negligence, which involves failure to provide required care; tort, which is a broader wrongful act; and malpractice, which concerns professional failure or improper action resulting in harm.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which assignment should not be delegated to the licensed practical nurse?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies starting a blood transfusion as the assignment that should not be delegated to the LPN in this question. The LPN can assist with tasks such as client identification with the RN and obtaining vital signs, but initiation of the transfusion is not the delegated task identified as appropriate. Safe delegation requires matching the task with the nurse’s permitted responsibilities and the client’s level of risk.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies starting a blood transfusion as the assignment that should not be delegated to the LPN in this question. The LPN can assist with tasks such as client identification with the RN and obtaining vital signs, but initiation of the transfusion is not the delegated task identified as appropriate. Safe delegation requires matching the task with the nurse’s permitted responsibilities and the client’s level of risk.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
Correct
The postoperative vital signs—blood pressure 90/50, pulse 132, and respirations 30—are markedly abnormal and indicate possible acute deterioration. The supplied rationale states that the physician should be contacted immediately rather than simply continuing routine monitoring or relying only on subjective symptoms. Prompt communication is necessary because the combination of hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea can signal a serious postoperative problem.
Incorrect
The postoperative vital signs—blood pressure 90/50, pulse 132, and respirations 30—are markedly abnormal and indicate possible acute deterioration. The supplied rationale states that the physician should be contacted immediately rather than simply continuing routine monitoring or relying only on subjective symptoms. Prompt communication is necessary because the combination of hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea can signal a serious postoperative problem.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
The nurse is caring for a client with ß-thalassemia major. Which therapy is used to treat ß-thalassemia major?
Correct
β-thalassemia major causes severe anemia because affected red blood cells have a shortened life span. The supplied rationale identifies frequent blood transfusions as the treatment used to manage the anemia and improve oxygen delivery to tissues. IV fluids, oxygen alone, and iron therapy do not correct the underlying severe anemia in the manner described by the source; iron should not be given simply to treat this inherited disorder.
Incorrect
β-thalassemia major causes severe anemia because affected red blood cells have a shortened life span. The supplied rationale identifies frequent blood transfusions as the treatment used to manage the anemia and improve oxygen delivery to tissues. IV fluids, oxygen alone, and iron therapy do not correct the underlying severe anemia in the manner described by the source; iron should not be given simply to treat this inherited disorder.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which medication is often used to treat the client with N.gonorrhea?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies doxycycline (Vibramycin) as an antibiotic used to treat N. gonorrhea in this question. The medication listed in option B is therefore the treatment choice supported by the source. The other medications are associated with different infectious or dermatologic conditions and are not the treatment identified for gonorrhea in the supplied material.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies doxycycline (Vibramycin) as an antibiotic used to treat N. gonorrhea in this question. The medication listed in option B is therefore the treatment choice supported by the source. The other medications are associated with different infectious or dermatologic conditions and are not the treatment identified for gonorrhea in the supplied material.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following symptoms is associated with Chlamydia?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies frequent urination and vaginal discharge as clinical symptoms associated with Chlamydia. These findings provide the combination that best matches the source’s description. The other options do not represent the symptoms identified in the supplied rationale for this infection.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies frequent urination and vaginal discharge as clinical symptoms associated with Chlamydia. These findings provide the combination that best matches the source’s description. The other options do not represent the symptoms identified in the supplied rationale for this infection.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The physician has ordered an alkaline ash diet for a patient with recurrent cysteine kidney stones. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s diet?
Correct
The supplied rationale states that an alkaline ash diet includes rhubarb, legumes, milk and milk products, and green vegetables. Rhubarb is therefore the appropriate choice among the listed foods. Cranberries, grapes, and plums are identified in the source as foods associated with an acid ash diet and should be limited when the prescribed diet is alkaline.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale states that an alkaline ash diet includes rhubarb, legumes, milk and milk products, and green vegetables. Rhubarb is therefore the appropriate choice among the listed foods. Cranberries, grapes, and plums are identified in the source as foods associated with an acid ash diet and should be limited when the prescribed diet is alkaline.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The nurse is aware that a common mode of transmission of clostridium difficile is:
Correct
Clostridium difficile is transmitted through contamination involving stool, and contaminated objects can contribute to spread. The supplied rationale emphasizes that poor hand hygiene is a major source of transmission in healthcare settings. Therefore, contamination of objects with stool is the transmission route that best matches the source.
Incorrect
Clostridium difficile is transmitted through contamination involving stool, and contaminated objects can contribute to spread. The supplied rationale emphasizes that poor hand hygiene is a major source of transmission in healthcare settings. Therefore, contamination of objects with stool is the transmission route that best matches the source.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The nurse has just received the change of shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Correct
The supplied rationale identifies the client who is only two hours post-lobectomy as the first priority for assessment. This client is in the immediate postoperative period and has ongoing chest drainage, so the nurse should assess promptly for potential complications. The other clients described are considered more stable in the supplied rationale and can be assessed afterward.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale identifies the client who is only two hours post-lobectomy as the first priority for assessment. This client is in the immediate postoperative period and has ongoing chest drainage, so the nurse should assess promptly for potential complications. The other clients described are considered more stable in the supplied rationale and can be assessed afterward.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The nurse is removing a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse should position the patient in which position?
Correct
The supplied rationale recommends Trendelenburg positioning for removal of a PICC line because the position helps reduce the risk of air entering the venous circulation and causing an air embolus. The other positions listed are not the position identified by the source for PICC removal. Proper positioning is therefore an important safety measure during the procedure.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale recommends Trendelenburg positioning for removal of a PICC line because the position helps reduce the risk of air entering the venous circulation and causing an air embolus. The other positions listed are not the position identified by the source for PICC removal. Proper positioning is therefore an important safety measure during the procedure.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client taking naltrexone (Revia). The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which over-the-counter medication:
Correct
The supplied rationale states that many cold medications contain alcohol, which should be avoided by a client taking naltrexone. Therefore, cold medicine is the best answer among the listed over-the-counter choices. The source specifically identifies acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and antihistamines as medications the client may take, making them less appropriate as the answer to this question.
Incorrect
The supplied rationale states that many cold medications contain alcohol, which should be avoided by a client taking naltrexone. Therefore, cold medicine is the best answer among the listed over-the-counter choices. The source specifically identifies acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and antihistamines as medications the client may take, making them less appropriate as the answer to this question.
Hint
Use the key nursing principle or medication-specific teaching point in the question to distinguish the correct option from the distractors.
NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test 5
This NCLEX-RN practice test is another useful opportunity to review nursing knowledge and develop the reasoning skills needed for the NCLEX-RN exam. The questions cover important nursing concepts and are presented in an NCLEX-style format to help you become more comfortable with exam-style questions.
Improve Your NCLEX-RN Test Preparation
Getting familiar with nursing questions is an important part of effective NCLEX-RN preparation. As you complete each question, focus on understanding the rationale rather than simply remembering the correct answer. This approach can help you apply the same nursing concepts when you encounter similar questions in the future.
Use this practice test to:
- Strengthen your understanding of key nursing concepts
- Practice answering NCLEX-style nursing questions
- Improve clinical judgment and critical-thinking skills
- Identify subjects that need additional review
- Build confidence before taking the NCLEX-RN exam
Keep Practicing With More NCLEX Questions
Consistent practice can help you reinforce important concepts and improve your approach to different types of nursing exam questions. After completing this test, continue with additional free NCLEX-RN practice questions to expand your preparation across a wider range of nursing topics.
Visit our Free NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Test Bank to find more NCLEX-RN practice tests, nursing questions, answer rationales, and exam preparation resources.
Access the NCLEX Test Plan, candidate bulletin and other resources for candidates preparing to take the NCLEX-RN